random numbers addition 1

[ziedhosni]

What do you think about this VI attached, do you have an idea of how to integratethe variance as a control insteat of upper an lower limit.

[Don_Phillips]

How about generating five independant random numbers and then dividing each of the five by thier sum.

The resulting numbers will then sum to 1.

Example -

Original series: .76, .89, .5, .17, .02 (sum = 2.34)

Dividing each by the sum gives:

0.324786
0.380341
0.213675
0.072649
0.008547

(totaling: 0.999998 because I truncaded results)

[RavensFan]

That is an excellent idea.

[ziedhosni]

Thanks but this is what I did in the first message with VI and I am not satisfied with it. I said the number have a low variance and always near to the mean.

[altenbach]

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@ziedhosni wrote:

Thanks but this is what I did in the first message with VI and I am not satisfied with it. I said the number have a low variance and always near to the mean.

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Since there are many answers above, you need so specify what "this" is.

(Earlier, I was just about to suggest Don's solution, but here on the west coast, we have a time diasadvantage. :D)

[ziedhosni]

Sorry for the mistake,I mean with this the last solution suggesting to do the sum then divide each number by the sum. This is what I am using before asking the question

[RavensFan]

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@ziedhosni wrote:

Thanks but this is what I did in the first message with VI and I am not satisfied with it. I said the number have a low variance and always near to the mean.

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You'll have to qualify this.  What do you consider low variance?  How are you even measuring/calculating that?

Post a screen shot of your VI that show these results that you don't like.

[eyeballxxx]

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@ziedhosni wrote:

Thanks but this is what I did in the first message with VI and I am not satisfied with it. I said the number have a low variance and always near to the mean.

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As an aside, random numbers with uniform distribution like to cluster. Think of a Gaussian bell.

[RavensFan]

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@eyeballxxx wrote:

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@ziedhosni wrote:

Thanks but this is what I did in the first message with VI and I am not satisfied with it. I said the number have a low variance and always near to the mean.

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As an aside, random numbers with uniform distribution like to cluster. Think of a Gaussian bell.

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Can you post some sort of reference that supports that statement?

Uniform distribution means any given value has as likely chance of occurring as any other.  There is no Gaussian bell and there is no clustering.

[ziedhosni]

All the generated numbers are below 0.4. None of them reach 0.7 or 0.9.

See attached